Saturday, March 10, 2007

IP Routing-CCNA

Review Questions
  1. Network 206.143.5.0 was assigned to the Acme Company to connect to its ISP. The administrator of Acme would like to configure one router with the commands to access the Internet.

Which commands could be configured on the Gateway router to allow Internet access to the entire network? (Choose two.)

A. Gateway(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 206.143.5.2

B. Gateway(config)#router rip

Gateway(config-router)#network 206.143.5.0

C. Gateway(config)#router rip

Gateway(config-router)#network 206.143.5.0 default

D. Gateway(config)#ip route 206.143.5.0 255.255.255.0 default

E. Gateway(config)#ip default-network 206.143.5.0

  1. What command is used to stop RIP routing updates from exiting out an interface but still receive RIP route updates?

A. Router(config-if)#no routing

B. Router(config-if)#passive-interface

C. Router(config-router)#passive-interface s0

D. Router(config-router)#no routing updates

  1. Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.2? (Choose two.)

A. The command is used to establish a static route.

B. The default administrative distance is used.

C. The command is used to configure the default route.

D. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0.

E. The command is used to establish a stub network.

  1. What destination addresses will be used by Host_A to send data to the HTTPS server as shown in the graphic below? (Choose two.)


A. The IP address of the switch

B. The MAC address of the remote switch

C. The IP address of the HTTPS server

D. The MAC address of the HTTPS server

E. The IP address of RouterA’s Fa0/0 interface

F. The MAC address of RouterA’s Fa0/0 interface

  1. Which of the following is true regarding the following output? (Choose two.)

04:06:16: RIP: received v1 update from 192.168.40.2 on Serial0/1

04:06:16: 192.168.50.0 in 16 hops (inaccessible)

04:06:40: RIP: sending v1 update to 255.255.255.255 via FastEthernet0/0

(192.168.30.1)

04:06:40: RIP: build update entries

04:06:40: network 192.168.20.0 metric 1

04:06:40: network 192.168.40.0 metric 1

04:06:40: network 192.168.50.0 metric 16

04:06:40: RIP: sending v1 update to 255.255.255.255 via Serial0/1

(192.168.40.1)

A. There are three interfaces on the router participating in this update.

B. A ping to 192.168.50.1 will be successful.

C. There are at least two routers exchanging information.

D. A ping to 192.168.40.2 will be successful.

6. What is split horizon?

A. Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original update came.

B. It splits the traffic when you have a large bus (horizon) physical network.

C. It holds the regular updates from broadcasting to a downed link.

D. It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down.

7. Using the graphic from question 4, which of the following would be true if HostA is trying to communicate to HostC and interface Fa0/0 of Router C goes down? (Choose two.)

A. RouterC will use an ICMP to inform HostA that HostB cannot be reached.

B. RouterC will use ICMP to inform RouterB that HostB cannot be reached.

C. RouterC will use ICMP to inform HostA, RouterA, and RouterB that HostB cannot be reached.

D. RouterC will send a Destination Unreachable message type.

E. RouterC will send a Router Selection message type.

F. RouterC will send a Source Quench message type.

8. Which statement is true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

A. The use of discontiguous networks is not allowed.

B. The use of variable length subnet masks is permitted.

C. RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol.

D. IGRP supports classless routing within the same autonomous system.

E. RIPv2 supports classless routing.

9. Which two of the following are true regarding the distance-vector and link-state routing protocols?

A. Link state sends its complete routing table out all active interfaces on periodic time intervals.

B. Distance vector sends its complete routing table out all active interfaces on periodic time intervals.

C. Link state sends updates containing the state of their own links to all routers in the internetwork.

D. Distance vector sends updates containing the state of their own links to all routers in the internetwork.

10. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

A. show ip route

B. debug ip rip

C. show protocols

D. debug ip route

11. What does RIPv2 use to prevent routing loops? (Choose two.)

A. CIDR

B. Split horizon

C. Authentication

D. Classless masking

E. Holddown timers

12. A network administrator views the output from the show ip route command. A network that is advertised by both RIP and IGRP appears in the routing table flagged as an IGRP route. Why is the RIP route to this network not used in the routing table?

A. IGRP has a faster update timer.

B. IGRP has a lower administrative distance.

C. RIP has a higher metric value for that route.

D. The IGRP route has fewer hops.

E. The RIP path has a routing loop.

13. You type debug ip rip on your router console and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you with a metric of 16. What does this mean?

A. The route is 16 hops away.

B. The route has a delay of 16 microseconds.

C. The route is inaccessible.

D. The route is queued at 16 messages a second.

14. IGRP uses which of the following as default parameters for finding the best path to a remote network? (Choose two.)

A. Hop count

B. MTU

C. Cumulative interface delay

D. STP

E. Path bandwidth value

15. The corporate router receives an IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3. Looking at the output from the Corporate router, what will the router do with this packet?

Corp#sh ip route

[output cut]

R 192.168.215.0 [120/2] via 192.168.20.2, 00:00:23, Serial0/0

R 192.168.115.0 [120/1] via 192.168.20.2, 00:00:23, Serial0/0

R 192.168.30.0 [120/1] via 192.168.20.2, 00:00:23, Serial0/0

C 192.168.20.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

C 192.168.214.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

A. The packets will be discarded.

B. The packets will be routed out the S0/0 interface.

C. The router will broadcast looking for the destination.

D. The packets will be routed out the Fa0/0 interface.

16. If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an IGRP route to the same network, which route will be used to route packets by default?

A. Any available route

B. RIP route

C. Static route

D. IGRP route

E. They will all load-balance.

17. You have the following routing table. Which of the following networks will not be placed in the neighbor routing table?

R 192.168.30.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:12, Serial0

C 192.168.40.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0

172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets

C 172.16.30.0 is directly connected, Loopback0

R 192.168.20.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:12, Serial0

R 10.0.0.0/8 [120/15] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:07, Serial0

C 192.168.50.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0

A. 172.16.30.0

B. 192.168.30.0

C. 10.0.0.0

D. All of them will be placed in the neighbor routing table.

18. Two connected routers are configured with RIP routing. What will be the result when a router receives a routing update that contains a higher-cost path to a network already in its routing table?

A. The updated information will be added to the existing routing table.

B. The update will be ignored and no further action will occur.

C. The updated information will replace the existing routing table entry.

D. The existing routing table entry will be deleted from the routing table and all outers will exchange routing updates to reach convergence.

19. What is route poisoning?

A. It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates.

B. It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the originating router.

C. It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come up.

D. It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity.

20. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?

A. It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1.

B. It converges faster than RIPv1.

C. It has the same timers as RIPv1.

D. It is harder to configure than RIPv1.

Answers to Review Questions

1. A, E. There are actually three different ways to configure the same default route, but only two are shown in the answer. First, you can set a default route with the 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 mask and then specify the next hop, as in answer A. Or you can use 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 and use the exit interface instead of the next hop. Finally, you can use answer E with the ip default-network command.

2. C. The (config-router)#passive-interface command stops updates from being sent out an interface, but route updates are still received.

3. A, B. Although answer C almost seems right, it is not; the mask is the mask used on the remote network, not the source network. Since there is no number at the end of the static route, it is using the default administrative distance of 1.

4. C, F. The switches are not used as either a default gateway or other destination. Switches have nothing to do with routing. It is very important to remember that the destination MAC address will always be the router’s interface. The destination address of a frame, from Host_A, will be the MAC address of the F0/0 interface of RouterA. The destination address of a packet will be the IP address of the network interface card (NIC) of the HTTPS server. The destination port number in the segment header will have a value of 443 (HTTPS).

5. C, D. The route to 192.168.50.0 is unreachable and only interfaces s0/1 and FastEthernet 0/0 are participating in the RIP update. Since a route update was received, at least two routers are participating in the RIP routing process. Since a route update for network 192.168.40.0 is being sent out f0/0, and a route was received from 192.168.40.2, we can assume a ping to that address will be successful.

6. A. A split horizon will not advertise a route back to the same router it learned the route from.

7. A, D. RouterC will use ICMP to inform Host1 that Host2 cannot be reached. It will perform this by sending a Destination Unreachable ICMP message type.

8. B, E. Classful routing means that all hosts in the internetwork use the same mask. Classless routing means that you can use Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) and can also support discontiguous networking.

9. B, C. The distance-vector routing protocol sends its complete routing table out all active interfaces on periodic time intervals. Link-state routing protocols send updates containing the state of their own links to all routers in the internetwork.

10. B. Debug ip rip is used to show the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) updates being sent and received on the router.

11. B, E. RIPv2 uses the same timers and loop-avoidance schemes as RIPv1. Split horizon is used to stop an update from being sent out the same interface it was received on. Holddown timers allow time for a network to become stable in the case of a flapping link.

12. B. RIP has an administrative distance (AD) of 120, while IGRP has an administrative distance of 100, so the router will discard any route with a higher AD than 100.

13. C. You cannot have 16 hops on a RIP network by default. If you receive a route advertised with a metric of 16, this means it is inaccessible.

14. C, E. IGRP uses bandwidth and delay of the line, by default, to determine the best path to a remote network. Delay of the line can sometimes be called the cumulative interface delay.

15. A. Since the routing table shows no route to the 192.168.22.0 network, the router will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet 0/0, which is the source LAN where the packet originated from.

16. C. Static routes have an administrative distance of one (1) by default. Unless you change this, a static route will always be used over any other found route. IGRP has an administrative distance of 100, and RIP has an administrative distance of 120, by default.

17. C. The network 10.0.0.0 cannot be placed in the next router’s routing table because it already is at 15 hops. One more hop would make the route 16 hops, and that is not valid in RIP networking.

18. B. When a routing update is received by a router, the router first checks the administrative distance (AD) and always chooses the route with the lowest AD. However, if two routes are received and they both have the same AD, then the router will choose the one route with the lowest metrics, or in RIP’s case, hop count.

19. D. Another way to avoid problems caused by inconsistent updates and to stop network loops is route poisoning. When a network goes down, the distance-vector routing protocol initiates route poisoning by advertising the network with a metric of 16, or unreachable (sometimes referred to as infinite).

20. C. RIPv2 is pretty much just like RIPv1. It has the same administrative distance and timers and is configured just like RIPv1.

Answers to Written Lab 5

1. ip route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.20.1 150

2. config t, router rip, network 10.0.0.0

3. config t, router rip, passive-interface serial 1

4. config t, router igrp 10, network 172.16.0.0

5. config t, ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.50.3

6. Holddown timers

7. Route poisoning

8. Split horizon

9. 172.16.0.0

10. debug ip rip

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Wednesday, March 7, 2007

Chapter 9-18 : TCP/IP Protocol

Chapter 9: TCP/IP Routing
Lesson 1: Routing Principles

Exercise 9.1: Routing Tables

  1. What type of routing is used by a packet in which the Destination IP Address and the data-link layer Destination Address values refer to different computers?
    1. The default gateway
    2. A direct route
    3. The default route
    4. An indirect route

d

  1. Place the following steps of the routing table search process in the proper order.
    1. Default gateway search
    2. Host address search
    3. Network address search

b, c, a

  1. What is a TCP/IP system with interfaces to two different networks called?
    1. A gateway
    2. Multihomed
    3. A router
    4. All of the above

d

Lesson 2: Building Routing Tables

Exercise 9.2: Static and Dynamic Routing

Specify whether each of the following terms is associated with static routing, dynamic routing, both, or neither.

  1. Routed

Dynamic

  1. Default gateway

Both

  1. Convergence

Dynamic

  1. Route.exe

Static

  1. Link-state routing

Dynamic

  1. Routing And Remote Access

Both

  1. Distance vector routing

Dynamic

  1. ROUTE ADD

Static

  1. Autonomous system

Dynamic

  1. Metric

Dynamic

Chapter Review

  1. Which of the following is not a dynamic routing protocol?
    1. OSPF
    2. RIP
    3. ICMP
    4. EGP

c

  1. What is the name for the use of metrics based on the number of hops between a source and a destination?
    1. Distance vector routing
    2. Loose source routing
    3. Link-state routing
    4. Open shortest path first routing

a

  1. What is the primary difference between OSPF and RIP?

OSPF uses link-state routing, while RIP uses distance vector routing.

  1. Which of the following fields is not included in a RIP version 1 route?
    1. Metric
    2. Subnet Mask
    3. IP Address
    4. Address Family Identifier

b

  1. What is the primary criticism leveled at RIP?

It generates excessive amounts of broadcast traffic that consumes network bandwidth.

  1. In a Windows routing table, what column contains the address of the router that should be used to reach a particular network or host?
    1. Network Destination
    2. Netmask
    3. Gateway
    4. Interface

c

  1. What is the name of the process of updating routing tables to reflect changes in the network?
    1. Divergence
    2. Link-state routing
    3. Minimal routing
    4. Convergence

d

  1. What does a router do when it fails to find a routing table entry for a particular network or host?

It uses the default gateway entry.

  1. On a Windows system, what command do you use to display the contents of the routing table?

ROUTE PRINT

  1. The Next Hop IP Address in a RIP version 2 route ends up in which column of a Windows routing table?
    1. Network Destination
    2. Netmask
    3. Gateway
    4. Interface

c

  1. In a Windows routing table, what is the Network Destination value for the default gateway entry?
    1. 0.0.0.0
    2. The address of the network to which the router is connected
    3. 255.255.255.255
    4. The address of the router's network interface

a

Chapter 10: TCP/IP Applications
Lesson 1: TCP/IP Services

Exercise 10.1: DHCP Message Types

  1. Place the following DHCP message types in the order in which a successful IP address assignment procedure uses them.
    1. DHCPACK
    2. DHCPOFFER
    3. DHCPREQUEST
    4. DHCPDISCOVER

d, b, c, a

  1. Place the following DHCP message types in the proper order for an unsuccessful attempt to renew an IP address lease.
    1. DHCPDISCOVER
    2. DHCPREQUEST (broadcast)
    3. DHCPREQUEST (unicast)
    4. DHCPNAK

c, b, d, a

Lesson 2: TCP/IP Utilities

Exercise 10.2: TCP/IP Utilities

Match the utilities in the left column with the functions in the right column.

Utilities
1. FTP
2. Ipconfig.exe
3. Tracert.exe
4. Ping
5. Telnet
6. Netstat
7. Winipcfg.exe
8. Nbtstat.exe
9. Arp.exe
10. Ifconfig

Functions
a. Provides remote control access to a UNIX system
b. Displays TCP/IP configuration on a Windows 98 system
c. Creates cache entries containing IP and hardware addresses
d. Configures the network interface on a UNIX system
e. Tests communications between two computers
f. Transfers files between two computers
g. Displays network traffic statistics
h. Lists the routers forwarding packets to a particular destination
i. Releases and renews IP address assignments on Windows 2000
j. Displays NetBIOS connection information

1. f
2. i
3. h
4. e
5. a
6. g
7. b
8. j
9. c
10. d

Chapter Review

  1. Which TCP/IP utility should you use to most easily identify which router on your internetwork is malfunctioning?
    1. Ipconfig.exe
    2. Ping
    3. Traceroute
    4. Netstat

c

  1. What does the first word in a full DNS name identify?
    1. The top-level domain
    2. The second-level domain
    3. The DNS server
    4. The host

d

  1. What happens to a DHCP client when its attempts to renew its IP address lease fail and the lease expires?

TCP/IP communication stops and the computer begins the process of negotiating a new lease.

  1. Which of the following message types is not used during the DHCP lease assignment process?
    1. DHCPDISCOVER
    2. DHCPRELEASE
    3. DHCPOFFER
    4. DHCPREQUEST

b

  1. What is the DNS resource record type that contains the basic name-to-address mapping used for name resolution?
    1. Address
    2. Pointer
    3. Canonical Name
    4. Start of Authority

a

  1. What is the name of the DNS domain that contains address-to-name mappings?

in-addr.arpa

  1. Which of the following protocols does the Ping program never use to carry its messages?
    1. Ethernet
    2. ICMP
    3. IP
    4. UDP

d

  1. Name one method other than WINS that computers running Windows can use to resolve NetBIOS names into IP addresses.

Either by using broadcasts or an LMHOSTS file

  1. What is the name of the time during the lease renewal process when a DHCP client begins broadcasting DHCPREQUEST messages?
    1. Lease identification cookie
    2. Rebinding time value
    3. Renewal time value
    4. Init value

b

  1. What is the function of a WINS server?
    1. To convert IP addresses into hardware addresses
    2. To convert host names into IP addresses
    3. To convert IP addresses into host names
    4. To convert NetBIOS names into IP addresses

d

Chapter 11: TCP/IP Configuration
Lesson 1: Installing the TCP/IP Protocols

Exercise 11.1: Microsoft TCP/IP Client Components

Specify whether each of the following is installed as part of the Microsoft TCP/IP client.

  1. The DHCP client

Yes

  1. Route.exe

Yes

  1. The WINS server

No

  1. The ICMP protocol

Yes

  1. The DNS resolver

Yes

  1. The SNMP Protocol

No

  1. The DNS server

No

  1. The WINS client

Yes

  1. Tracert.exe

Yes

  1. The Telnet server

No

Lesson 2: Configuring TCP/IP

Exercise 11.2: TCP/IP Configuration Requirements

For each of the network scenarios 1 through 5 listed below, specify which of the following TCP/IP parameters (a, b, c, d, and/or e) you must configure to provide a computer running Windows 2000 with full communications capabilities.

  1. IP address
  2. Subnet mask
  3. Default Gateway
  4. DNS server address
  5. WINS server address
  1. A private internetwork using Windows NT domains

a, b, c, e

  1. A single peer-to-peer LAN

a, b

  1. A corporate internetwork using Active Directory service

a, b, c, d

  1. A peer-to-peer LAN using a shared Internet connection

a, b, d

  1. A Windows NT internetwork with a router connected to the Internet

a, b, c, d, e

Chapter Review

  1. Which of the following IP security policies does not request the use of IPSec?
    1. Client
    2. Server
    3. Secure Server
    4. All of the above

a

  1. Which of the following services is not used on a Windows 2000 Active Directory network?
    1. DHCP
    2. WINS
    3. DNS
    4. IPSec

b

  1. What is the function of a DNS suffix?

Its function is to complete unqualified DNS names, so that a DNS server can resolve them.

  1. Which utility can you use to specify a default gateway address?
    1. Tracert.exe
    2. Arp.exe
    3. Ipconfig.exe
    4. Route.exe

d

  1. Which of the Windows 2000 Control Panel selections do you use to install the Microsoft TCP/IP client?

Network And Dial-up Connections

  1. Which of the following is a valid reason for assigning more than one IP address to a single network interface adapter?
    1. To balance the network traffic load between the addresses
    2. To support multiple subnets on one network
    3. To provide fault tolerance
    4. To support both TCP and UDP traffic

b

  1. How many default gateway addresses does a computer need to function on a LAN?
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3

a

  1. At which of the following layers does the TCP/IP filtering option operate?
    1. Physical and data-link
    2. Application and session
    3. Data-link and network
    4. Network and transport

d

  1. How does Windows 2000 supply a subnet mask for the IP address you specify?
    1. By performing a reverse DNS name resolution on the address
    2. By checking the values of the first three address bits
    3. By checking the HOSTS file
    4. By querying the directory service

b

  1. What is the function of an LMHOSTS file?

Its function is to resolve NetBIOS names into IP addresses.

Chapter 12: Remote Network Access
Lesson 1: Using Remote Connections

Exercise 12.1: Remote Connection Technologies

Specify which of the remote connection technologies (PSTN, ISDN, DSL, and/or CATV) discussed in this lesson are associated with each of the following concepts.

  1. Asymmetrical transfer rates

DSL, CATV

  1. Uses standard telephone lines

PSTN, ISDN, DSL

  1. Slowest of the connection types discussed

PSTN

  1. Uses an NT1

ISDN

  1. Also called POTS

PSTN

  1. Uses an ATU-R

DSL

  1. Uses analog signals

PSTN

  1. Shares bandwidth with other users

CATV

  1. Uses dial-up connections

PSTN, ISDN

  1. Requires the nearest central office to be relatively close by

ISDN, DSL

Chapter Review

  1. To communicate with its host computer, a modem does not always need which of the following system resources?
    1. A serial port
    2. An IRQ
    3. A COM port
    4. An I/O port address

a

  1. Why are "cable modems" and "DSL modems" not really modems?

They are not really modems because they do not convert signals between analog and digital formats.

  1. Which of the DSL types is most commonly used to provide Internet access to end users?
    1. HDSL
    2. ADSL
    3. SDSL
    4. VDSL

b

  1. An ISDN installation in the United States provides you with a connection using which interface?
    1. The Basic Rate Interface
    2. The S/T interface
    3. The U interface
    4. The Primary Rate Interface

c

  1. Which of the following protocols can be transmitted through a PPTP tunnel?
    1. IP only
    2. IP and NetBEUI
    3. IP and IPX
    4. IP, IPX, and NetBEUI

d

  1. Which of the following is not the name of an ISDN service?
    1. BRI
    2. 2B+D
    3. PRI
    4. IDSL

d

  1. What three new hardware components are required to install CATV Internet access on the computer of an existing cable TV customer?

The required components are a cable splitter, a cable modem, and a network interface card.

  1. Name one of the data-link layer protocols that computers can use with a PSTN connection.

SLIP or PPP

  1. Which of the following UART chips enables a modem to achieve the best possible performance?
    1. 8250
    2. 16450
    3. 16550
    4. 16650

c

  1. Which device enables you to use a computer with an ISDN connection?
    1. A terminal adapter
    2. An NT1
    3. Terminal equipment
    4. A U interface

a

Chapter 13: Network Security
Lesson 1: Password Protection

Exercise 13.1: Password Policies

For each of the characteristics in the left column, specify which of the policies in the right column best applies to it.

Characteristic

1. Specifies the number of logon attempts a user is permitted
2. Requires passwords to contain at least six characters
3. Prevents users from reusing the same passwords
4. Prevents users from defeating the Enforce Password History policy
5. Enables passwords to be recovered

Policies
a. Enforce Password History
b. Maximum Password Age
c. Minimum Password Age
d. Minimum Password Length
e. Passwords Must Meet Complexity Requirements
f. Store Password Using Reversible Encryption
g. Account Lockout Threshold
h. Account Lockout Duration
i. Reset Account Lockout Counter After

1. g
2. e
3. a
4. c
5. f

Lesson 2: Security Models

Exercise 13.2: Security Levels

Specify whether each of the following statements applies to user-level security, share-level security, both, or neither.

  1. Requires a directory service

Neither

  1. Uses the same password for all users

Share-level

  1. Provides variable degrees of access to shared network resources

Both

  1. Stores passwords on individual computers

Both

  1. Requires separate accounts

User-level

Chapter Review

  1. Where does a peer-to-peer network that uses user-level security store its security information?
    1. On a domain controller
    2. In a directory service
    3. On each individual computer on the network
    4. On a central server

c

  1. Service-dependent packet filtering bases its decision to allow or deny access to a network based on what criterion?
    1. Port numbers
    2. IP addresses
    3. Hardware addresses
    4. Protocol identifiers

a

  1. Which type of firewall operates at the application layer?

A proxy server

  1. Which of the following is not a password characteristic enforced by the Passwords Must Meet Complexity Requirements policy?
    1. Passwords cannot contain all or part of the account's user name.
    2. Passwords must be changed weekly.
    3. Passwords must be at least six characters long.
    4. Passwords must include numerals or symbols, or both.

b

  1. What is the maximum length of an Active Directory password?
    1. 8 characters
    2. 14 characters
    3. 24 characters
    4. 104 characters

d

  1. NAT operates at which layer of the OSI model?
    1. The data-link layer
    2. The network layer
    3. The transport layer
    4. The application layer

b

  1. Why does share-level security provide less protection than user-level security?

It provides less protection because all users share the same passwords.

  1. What does setting the Account Lock Threshold policy prevent intruders from using to penetrate your network security?
    1. Stolen passwords
    2. Illegal software
    3. The brute force method
    4. Unencrypted passwords

c

  1. What is the main drawback to using proxy servers?

You have to configure client applications to use the proxies.

  1. Where is a firewall typically located?
    1. At the boundary between your ISP's network and the Internet
    2. On your private network
    3. On the Internet
    4. At the boundary between your private network and your ISP's network

d

Chapter 14: Planning the Network
Lesson 2: Providing Fault Tolerance

Exercise 14.1: Data Availability Technologies

Which of the disk technologies (mirroring, duplexing, spanning, or striping) applies to each of the following statements?

  1. Enables a server to survive a drive failure

Mirroring, duplexing

  1. Uses multiple hard drives to create a single logical hard drive

Mirroring, duplexing, spanning, striping

  1. Enables a server to survive a disk host adapter failure

Duplexing

  1. Stores a single file on multiple drives

Mirroring, duplexing, striping

  1. Causes an entire volume to be lost when one drive fails

Spanning, striping

Chapter Review

  1. Name three physical characteristics you should evaluate during your inspection of the network installation site.

An adminstrator should evaluate distance between components, environmental conditions, and sources of interference.

  1. Name one method you can use to connect a network that uses private, unregistered IP addresses to the Internet.

One possible method is Network Address Translation (NAT); another is a proxy server.

  1. List five environmental factors that you should check while inspecting a network site.

You should check temperature, humidity, overnight climate control, dust, and electrical power.

  1. Which is the most practical network medium to use when connecting computers that are all fewer than 100 meters apart, but located in two buildings?
    1. Unshielded twisted pair cable
    2. Shielded twisted pair cable
    3. Fiber optic cable
    4. Wireless

c

  1. Which of the following storage services is not provided by RAID?
    1. Data striping
    2. Tape backup
    3. Disk mirroring
    4. Error correction

b

  1. Which service do you use to assign IP addresses to your network workstations?
    1. DHCP
    2. DNS
    3. WINS
    4. NAT

a

  1. What is the primary reason for developing standardized workstation configurations?

A standardized configuration helps to simplify the process of supporting and troubleshooting the workstations later.

  1. What services does a cluster of servers provide that Novell's NetWare SFT III does not?

A cluster of servers provides load balancing, distributed processing, and support for more than two systems.

  1. Name two applications that can cause a network to require larger than normal amounts of bandwidth.

Real-time data feeds and full motion video

  1. What additional hardware can you install to create redundant paths through the network?
    1. NICs
    2. Hubs
    3. Servers
    4. Routers

d

Chapter 15: Installing a Network
Lesson 1: Pulling Cable

Exercise 15.1: Internal and External Cabling

For each of the following network scenarios, state whether you would perform an internal or external cable installation, and give a reason why.

  1. A 10-node UTP network installed in a temporary office space by a seasonal business

An external installation should be performed because the cables can easily be removed when the network is disassembled, and reused when the network is later reinstalled.

  1. A 100-node corporate UTP network being installed in a newly constructed office building

An internal installation should be performed. The new construction simplifies the process of installing the data cables along with the telephone cables. The installation will gain the benefits of appearance and cable integrity at no additional cost.

  1. A 50-node Thick Ethernet network being moved to a new location

An external installation should be performed because the heaviness and inflexibility of the RG8 coaxial cable make internal installations difficult.

Lesson 2: Making Connections

Exercise 15.2: Cable Installation Tools

Match the tools in the left column with the proper functions in the right column.

Tools
1. Telepole
2. Punchdown block tool
3. Fish tape
4. Raceway
5. Crimper

Functions
a. Used to attach male RJ45 connectors to UTP cables
b. Pulls cables up through walls
c. Used to attach UTP cables to jacks
d. Used to pull cable through drop ceilings
e. Secures and protects external cable runs

1. d
2. c
3. b
4. e
5. a

Chapter Review

  1. Which of the following components is not required for an internal cable installation?
    1. A raceway
    2. A wall plate
    3. A patch panel
    4. A punchdown block tool

a

  1. What is the primary function of the twists in a twisted pair cable?
    1. They bundle the positive and negative wires together.
    2. They prevent the cables from catching fire.
    3. They protect the signals against crosstalk.
    4. They separate the wire pairs.

c

  1. In a crossover cable, the TD- contact at one end is connected to which contact at the other end?
    1. TD+
    2. TD-
    3. RD+
    4. RD-

d

  1. Which of the following is not a function of the punchdown block tool?
    1. To cut off the wire ends
    2. To strip the sheath off the cable
    3. To strip the insulation off the wires
    4. To push the wires down between the contacts

b

  1. What components of an internal cable network do patch cables connect?
    1. Hubs to computers
    2. Computers to patch panels
    3. Wall plates to patch panels
    4. Patch panels to hubs

d

  1. What is the name of the signal that a NIC exchanges with a hub?
    1. Link pulse
    2. Test wave
    3. Crossover circuit
    4. Punchdown block

a

  1. Why should all your cable runs use the same wiring standard?
    1. Because Ethernet can only transmit signals over wires of a certain color
    2. Because the wires in a UTP cable are different gauges and carry signals differently
    3. To ensure that all of the connections are wired straight through
    4. To prevent crosstalk

c

  1. Which tool do you use to make a patch cable?
    1. A pair of pliers
    2. A punchdown block tool
    3. A fish tape
    4. A crimper

d

  1. Why has Thick Ethernet cable rarely been installed internally?

It is rarely installed internally because the cable itself is too heavy and inflexible.

  1. What is the style of most jacks used today?
    1. 110
    2. 568A
    3. 568B
    4. RG58

a

Chapter 16: Network Maintenance

Lesson 1: Backups

Exercise 16.1: Incremental and Differential Backups

  1. If you back up your network by performing a full backup every Wednesday at 6:00 P.M. and differential backups in the evening of the other six days of the week, how many jobs would be needed to completely restore a computer with a hard drive that failed on a Tuesday at noon?

Two

  1. If you back up your network by performing a full backup every Wednesday at 6:00 P.M., how many jobs would be needed if you performed incremental backups in the evening of the other six days of the week?

Six

  1. For a complete restore of a computer that failed at noon on Tuesday, how many jobs would be needed if you performed full backups at 6:00 A.M. every Wednesday and Saturday and incremental backups at 6:00 A.M. every other day?

Four

Lesson 2: Anti-Virus Policies

Exercise 16.2: Virus Types

Match the virus types in the left column with the characteristics in the right column.

Virus types
1. Executable file viruses
2. Trojans
3. Stealth viruses
4. Boot sector viruses
5. Macro viruses
6. Worms
7. Polymorphic viruses

Characteristic

a. Modify a file's directory entry size
b. Replicate themselves, but do not infect other files
c. Load into memory when the computer starts
d. Infect document files
e. Periodically change their signatures
f. Do not replicate or infect other files
g. Load into memory when you run a specific program

1. g
2. f
3. a
4. c
5. d
6. b
7. e

Chapter Review

  1. Which of the following types of backup jobs does not reset the Archive bits of the files it backs up?
    1. Full
    2. Incremental
    3. Differential
    4. Supplemental

c

  1. Which of the following is the criterion most commonly used to filter files for backup jobs?
    1. File name
    2. File extension
    3. File attributes
    4. File size

c

  1. Why is a worm not considered to be a true virus?

A worm is not a true virus because it is a separate program that does not infect other files.

  1. Name three reasons why a software upgrade can be an expensive proposition.

Possible reasons are the cost of the upgrade itself, the cost of upgrading the computer hardware, the cost of paying software installers, and the cost of retraining users.

  1. How does an autochanger increase the overall storage capacity of a backup solution?

It increases capacity by automatically inserting and removing media from a drive.

  1. How does a stealth virus disguise its presence?
    1. By masquerading as an innocuous file
    2. By changing the size of the infected file's directory entry
    3. By encrypting its signature
    4. By infecting the disk's master boot record

b

  1. What are the three elements in the Grandfather-Father-Son media rotation system?
    1. Hard disk drives, CD-ROM drives, and magnetic tape drives
    2. Incremental, differential, and full backup jobs
    3. Monthly, weekly, and daily backup jobs
    4. QIC, DAT, and DLT tape drives

c

  1. Which of the following software releases is a fix designed to address one specific issue?
    1. A patch
    2. An update
    3. An upgrade
    4. A Service Pack

a

  1. How does a macro virus differ from the other major types of viruses?
    1. It doesn't replicate.
    2. It infects data files.
    3. It doesn't infect other files.
    4. It hides itself using encryption.

b

  1. What drive interface is most commonly used by network backup devices?
    1. IDE
    2. SCSI
    3. USB
    4. Parallel port

b

Chapter 17: Network Troubleshooting Procedures
Lesson 1: Identifying Network Components

Exercise 17.1: Ports and Connectors

Match the ports listed in the left column with the connector descriptions in the right column.

Ports
1. VGA video port
2. Serial port
3. SCA SCSI port
4. 10BaseT Ethernet port
5. USB port
6. AUI port
7. Keyboard/mouse port
8. Parallel port
9. 5 MBps SCSI port
10. Thin Ethernet port

Connector description
a. Rectangular four-conductor connector
b. Combined power and data connector
c. Mini-DIN connector
d. Three-row, 15-pin D-shell connector
e. Female DB-25 connector
f. 50-pin Centronics connector
g. Thick Ethernet connector
h. Male DB-9 connector
i. BNC connector
j. RJ45 connector

1. d
2. h
3. b
4. j
5. a
6. g
7. c
8. e
9. f
10. i

Lesson 2: Troubleshooting a Network

Exercise 17.2: Network Troubleshooting

Place the following steps of the problem isolation process in the proper logical order.

  1. Reproduce the problem using a different computer.
  2. Reproduce the problem yourself.
  3. Have the user reproduce the problem.
  4. Reproduce the problem using a different user account.

3, 2, 4, 1

Chapter Review

  1. What is the device called that enables you to connect a Type 1 Token Ring NIC to a UTP network?

A Token Ring media filter

  1. Which of the following ports never uses a DB-25 connector?
    1. Parallel ports
    2. Serial ports
    3. Video ports
    4. SCSI ports

c

  1. Which type of SCSI connector supplies power as well as data signals?
    1. 50-pin Centronics
    2. SCA
    3. 50-pin High-Density
    4. 68-pin High-Density

b

  1. Which of the following problems would you assign the highest priority for your network support team? Explain why.
    1. The printer in the Order Entry department isn't working.
    2. The corporate e-mail server is down.
    3. A hub is malfunctioning in the Sales department.
    4. The president of the company's workstation is locked up.

The highest priority should be assigned to b, because this is the problem that affects a vital function for the most users. However, d gets honorable mention for enabling the technician to remain employed.

  1. Which type of connector has been used both for keyboards and for power connections?
    1. PS/2
    2. Five-pin DIN
    3. USB
    4. Six-pin mini-DIN

b

  1. In a two-tiered network support system, what do the tiers refer to?
    1. File servers storing network documentation
    2. Priorities for trouble tickets
    3. Problem call databases
    4. Technicians of different skill levels

d

  1. Which of the following devices does not typically contain a row of at least four ports?
    1. A router
    2. A patch panel
    3. A switch
    4. A hub

a

  1. What is the name of the device that provides the interface between a router and a leased telephone line?x

A Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU)

  1. Which type of Ethernet connector has 15 pins?
    1. RJ45
    2. BNC
    3. AUI
    4. VGA

c

  1. How does a UPS protect a network?

It protects a network by providing temporary standby power in the event that building power fails.

Network Essential-Questions and Answers

Chapter 18: Network Troubleshooting Tools
Lesson 1: Documentation and Resources

Exercise 18.1: Technical Resources

Match the resources in the left column with the appropriate descriptions in the right column.

Resources
1. PDF
2. TechNet
3. NNTP
4. Readme.1st
5. Newsgroup

Description
a. ASCII text file containing recent product information
b. Internet conference containing messages on a given subject
c. Document format used by Adobe Acrobat
d. A Microsoft CD-ROM subscription service
e. Protocol used by Usenet news clients and servers

1. c
2. d
3. e
4. a
5. b

Lesson 2: Logs and Indicators

Exercise 18.2: Network Indicators

Define each of the following terms in relation to the concepts discussed in this lesson.

  1. SNMP

Simple Network Management Protocol, a query language and protocol used to carry information between network management agents and a central console

  1. NLP

Normal Link Pulse, a signal generated by 10BaseT Ethernet hubs and network interface adapters that lights LEDs on both devices to signify that they have been wired together properly

  1. Trap

A message generated by an SNMP agent, informing the network management console of a condition requiring immediate attention

  1. Link code word

An additional 16-bit data packet included in the FLP signal used by Fast Ethernet devices to negotiate the speed at which they will operate

  1. MIB

Management Information Base, the place where an SNMP agent stores information about the device it's monitoring pending its transmission to the network management console

Lesson 3: Network Testing and Monitoring Tools

Exercise 18.3: Network Testing Equipment

For each of the devices listed in the left column, specify which of the faults in the right column it is capable of detecting.

Devices
1. Crossover cable
2. RJ45 loopback connector
3. Tone generator and locator
4. Wire map tester
5. Multifunction cable tester

Faults
a. Cable short
b. Split pair
c. Malfunctioning hub
d. Excessive crosstalk
e. Transposed wires
f. Faulty network interface adapter
g. Untwisted cables
h. Broken cable

1. c, h
2. f
3. a, e, h
4. a, e, h
5. a, b, d, e, g, h

Chapter Review

  1. How does the FLP signal used by Fast Ethernet equipment differ from the NLP signal used by standard Ethernet?

FLP includes a 16-bit link code word in the signal that the devices use to negotiate their fastest common transmission speed.

  1. A fox and hound tester is another term for what device?
    1. A crossover cable
    2. A tone generator and locator
    3. A wire map tester
    4. A multifunction cable tester

b

  1. Which of the following products do you need to open a .pdf file?
    1. A news reader
    2. NNTP
    3. Adobe Acrobat Reader
    4. A multifunction cable tester

c

  1. How does the performance of a network interface adapter differ while in promiscuous mode?

The network interface adapter reads and processes all packets transmitted over the network, not just those addressed to it.

  1. What protocol do Usenet news readers and news servers use to communicate?
    1. HTTP
    2. FTP
    3. SNMP
    4. NNTP

d

  1. Which of the following cabling faults can a wire map tester not detect?
    1. Open pairs
    2. Split pairs
    3. Transposed pairs
    4. Shorts

b

  1. Arrange the following Ethernet technologies in the order of priority established by the FLP signal.
    1. 100BaseT4
    2. 10BaseT Full Duplex
    3. 100BaseTX
    4. 10BaseT
    5. 100BaseTX Full Duplex

e, a, c, b, d

  1. What are the individual elements measured by the Windows 2000 Performance console called?
    1. Counters
    2. Statistics
    3. Alerts
    4. Traps

a

  1. Which of the following types of cable tester is most expensive?
    1. Fox and hound
    2. Wire map
    3. Multifunction
    4. Loopback

c

  1. Where do agents used by network management products store their information?
    1. SNMP
    2. MIB
    3. NNTP
    4. Console

b

Chapter 19: Network Troubleshooting Scenarios
Lesson 1: "I Can't Access a Web Site"

Exercise 19.1: Network Hardware Problems

On an internetwork consisting of several user segments connected by a backbone, with an Internet router connected directly to the backbone, specify whether the following network conditions would normally cause Internet access problems for one user only, for all of the users connected to one hub, for all of the users on one LAN, or for the entire internetwork.

  1. Both ends of a cable connecting two hubs are plugged into an uplink port.

All of the users on one hub

  1. The router connecting the network to the ISP is down.

The entire internetwork

  1. The cable connecting a user's computer to the hub is cut.

One user only

  1. The ISP's connection to the Internet fails.

The entire internetwork

  1. The router connecting a user LAN to the backbone malfunctions.

All of the users on one LAN

Chapter Review

  1. Without a DNS server, a user can still access the Internet using which of the following techniques?
    1. By using links saved as Favorites instead of typing URLs
    2. By using NetBIOS names instead of DNS names
    3. By using hardware addresses instead of DNS names
    4. By using IP addresses instead of DNS names

d

  1. A user is unable to access the shared server drive that he uses every day, where his working files are stored. Which of the following questions would you ask the user first? State your reason why.
    1. "Are you able to access any other network resources?"
    2. "Did you have any problems logging on to the network?"
    3. "Can you access the Internet?"
    4. "Is your network cable connected to the computer?"

b. The logon process is the user's first interaction with the network after the computer starts. If the logon completed successfully, it is clear that the user's hardware is functioning properly and that the problem lies elsewhere.

  1. Which of the following is not a possible cause of Internet access failure?
    1. Missing WINS server address
    2. DNS server failure
    3. ISP connection failure
    4. Mistyped URLs

a

  1. Which of the following network/transport layer problems can be caused by another computer on the network?
    1. Missing DNS server address
    2. Incorrect subnet mask
    3. Duplicate IP address
    4. Incorrect default gateway address

c

  1. A computer running the Windows operating system without a WINS server address cannot access which of the following resources?
    1. Internet Web sites
    2. Computers running the Windows operating system that are connected to the same hub
    3. Computers not running the Windows operating system that are connected to the same LAN
    4. Computers running the Windows operating system that are connected to other LANs

d

  1. Which of the following is the best solution for a case in which a user has changed the network interface adapter configuration and can no longer access the network?
    1. Replace the adapter with a new one.
    2. Delete the adapter driver and let Plug and Play reinstall it.
    3. Modify the adapter's configuration parameters using the utility supplied by the manufacturer.
    4. Modify the adapter driver's configuration parameters using the operating system interface.

b

  1. Which of the following is the easiest way to test a patch cable for a fault?
    1. Replace it with one that you know is working properly.
    2. Connect it to a multifunction cable tester.
    3. Plug the computer end of the cable into the wall plate and the wall plate end into the computer.
    4. Connect it to a computer that you know is functioning properly.

a

  1. Which of the following tools can pinpoint the exact location of a cable break?
    1. A tone generator and locator
    2. A protocol analyzer
    3. A multifunction cable tester
    4. A wire map tester

c

  1. When a computer lacks a correct default gateway address, how far do packets destined for other networks travel?
    1. As far as the Internet access router
    2. As far as the backbone
    3. As far as the hub
    4. As far as the local network

d

  1. Which of the following network problems would generally affect services other than Internet access on a Windows-based network?
    1. ISP connection failure
    2. Backbone failure
    3. DNS failure
    4. T1 failure
b
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